MCQ's on Dermatology for Staff Nurses and Medical Exam [Objective]
by ADMIN
September 22, 2016
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1. Which of the following would be prescribed for acne?
(A) Actiq
(B) Actonel
(C) AccuCheck
(D) Accutane
2. An absence of pigment in the skin is called
(A) acanthosis nigricans
(B) albinism
(C) melanism
(D) xanthoderma
3. A burn which involves 2 layers of the skin and estroys the nerves and blood vessels, but does not go down to muscle or bone is a
(A) firstdegree burn
(B) seconddegree burn
(C) thirddegree burn
(D) fullthickness burn
4. Death of tissue associated with loss of blood supply to the affected area is called
(A) cellulitis
(B) eczema
(C) gangrene
(D) psoriasis
5. An acute eruption of intensely itchy papules or wheals is called
(A) acne vulgaris
(B) pityriasis rosea
(C) psoriasis
(D) urticaria (hives.
6. Moles with the potential to develop into malignant melanoma are
(A) intradermal nevi
(B) dysplastic nevi
(C) giant nevi
(D) verrucae
7. The type of cyst contains yellowish sebum and is commonly found on the scalp, vulva, and scrotum.
(A) papule
(B) sebaceous cyst
(C) ulcer
(D) vesicle
8. Excessive hair on the face or body, especially in women, is called:
(A) albinism
(B) atrichia
(C) alopecia
(D) hirsutism
9. The halfmoon shaped, white area located at the base of a fingernail is called the
(A) basal layer
(B) cuticle
(C) lunula
(D) stratum
10. An epidermal growth caused by a virus (wart.) is called a
(A) impetigo
(B) melanoma
(C) nevus
(D) verruca
(A) Actiq
(B) Actonel
(C) AccuCheck
(D) Accutane
2. An absence of pigment in the skin is called
(A) acanthosis nigricans
(B) albinism
(C) melanism
(D) xanthoderma
3. A burn which involves 2 layers of the skin and estroys the nerves and blood vessels, but does not go down to muscle or bone is a
(A) firstdegree burn
(B) seconddegree burn
(C) thirddegree burn
(D) fullthickness burn
4. Death of tissue associated with loss of blood supply to the affected area is called
(A) cellulitis
(B) eczema
(C) gangrene
(D) psoriasis
5. An acute eruption of intensely itchy papules or wheals is called
(A) acne vulgaris
(B) pityriasis rosea
(C) psoriasis
(D) urticaria (hives.
6. Moles with the potential to develop into malignant melanoma are
(A) intradermal nevi
(B) dysplastic nevi
(C) giant nevi
(D) verrucae
7. The type of cyst contains yellowish sebum and is commonly found on the scalp, vulva, and scrotum.
(A) papule
(B) sebaceous cyst
(C) ulcer
(D) vesicle
8. Excessive hair on the face or body, especially in women, is called:
(A) albinism
(B) atrichia
(C) alopecia
(D) hirsutism
9. The halfmoon shaped, white area located at the base of a fingernail is called the
(A) basal layer
(B) cuticle
(C) lunula
(D) stratum
10. An epidermal growth caused by a virus (wart.) is called a
(A) impetigo
(B) melanoma
(C) nevus
(D) verruca
11. Yellowing of the skin is indicative of
(A) hyperbillirubinemia
(B) hyperuricemia
(C) hyperkalemia
(D) hyporeninemia
12. Which of the following is a combining form meaning skin?
(A) adip/o
(B) cutane/o
(C) pachy/o
(D) xanth/o
13. A chronic dermatitis of unknown etiology in patients with a history of allergy is called
(A) actinic dermatitis
(B) atopic dermatitis
(C) stasis dermatitis
(D) seborrheic dermatitis
14. The outermost layer of skin is the
(A) dermis
(B) endodermis
(C) epidermis
(D) hypodermis
15. Of the three layers of the skin, which is the thick, fatcontaining layer?
(A) dermis
(B) epidermis
(C) epithelium
(D) subcutaneous tissue
16. The brownblack pigment of the skin that is transferred to other epidermal cells and gives the skin its color is called
(A) albumin
(B) collagen
(C) keratin
(D) melanin
17. Which of the following is transcribed correctly?
(A) The patient was given metronidazole for rosacea and Lamisil for onychomycosis.
(B) The patient was given metronidazole for roseola and Lamisil for onychomycosis.
(C) The patient was given metronidazole for roseola and Lamisil for onychomycosis.
(D) The patient was given metroprolol for rosacea and Lamisil for onychomycosis.
18. Apocrine glands produce
(A) mucus
(B) sebum
(C) sweat
(D) keratin
19. Which of the following infections is also known as ringworm?
(A) folliculitis
(B) herpes simplex
(C) impetigo
(D) tinea corporis
20. Another term for itching is
(A) dermatitis
(B) keratosis
(C) petechiae
(D) pruritus
(A) hyperbillirubinemia
(B) hyperuricemia
(C) hyperkalemia
(D) hyporeninemia
12. Which of the following is a combining form meaning skin?
(A) adip/o
(B) cutane/o
(C) pachy/o
(D) xanth/o
13. A chronic dermatitis of unknown etiology in patients with a history of allergy is called
(A) actinic dermatitis
(B) atopic dermatitis
(C) stasis dermatitis
(D) seborrheic dermatitis
14. The outermost layer of skin is the
(A) dermis
(B) endodermis
(C) epidermis
(D) hypodermis
15. Of the three layers of the skin, which is the thick, fatcontaining layer?
(A) dermis
(B) epidermis
(C) epithelium
(D) subcutaneous tissue
16. The brownblack pigment of the skin that is transferred to other epidermal cells and gives the skin its color is called
(A) albumin
(B) collagen
(C) keratin
(D) melanin
17. Which of the following is transcribed correctly?
(A) The patient was given metronidazole for rosacea and Lamisil for onychomycosis.
(B) The patient was given metronidazole for roseola and Lamisil for onychomycosis.
(C) The patient was given metronidazole for roseola and Lamisil for onychomycosis.
(D) The patient was given metroprolol for rosacea and Lamisil for onychomycosis.
18. Apocrine glands produce
(A) mucus
(B) sebum
(C) sweat
(D) keratin
19. Which of the following infections is also known as ringworm?
(A) folliculitis
(B) herpes simplex
(C) impetigo
(D) tinea corporis
20. Another term for itching is
(A) dermatitis
(B) keratosis
(C) petechiae
(D) pruritus
21. The skin, hair, nails, and glands all make up this system of the body.
(A) integumentary system
(B) lymphatic system
(C) musculoskeletal system
(D) nervous system
22. Clotrimazole and nystatin are both
(A) topical antifungals
(B) antiitch creams
(C) topical antibiotics
(D) used to treat eczema
23. Which skin neoplasm is associated with an increase in the growth of cells in the keratin layer of the epidermis caused by pressure or friction?
(A) callus
(B) keloid
(C) keratosis
(D) leukoplakia
24. In this condition, there is a scaly dermatitis affecting parts of the skin that are supplied by oil glands.
(A) chronic dermatitis
(B) contact dermatitis
(C) eczema
(D) seborrheic dermatitis
25. Which of the following is a fungal infection?
(A) lichen planus
(B) keratosis
(C) suborrhea
(D) tinea capitis
26. A groove or a cracklike sore is called a (an.
(A) fissure
(B) nodule
(C) polyp
(D) ulcer
27. Which of the following is transcribed correctly?
(A) This 58yearold woman had a biopsy proven melanom(A) Clarks level 1, on the left cheek.
(B) This 58yearold woman had a biopsyproven melanom(A) Clark's level 1, on the left cheek.
(C) This 58yearold woman had a biopsy proven melen(A) Clark level 1, on the left cheek
(D) This 58yearold woman had a biopsyproven melanom(A) Clark level 1, on the left cheek.
28. Follicular dilation involving the nose and portions of the cheeks, erythema, papules, and pustules are classic signs of this dermatologic disorder.
(A) acne cosmetica
(B) acne pustulosa
(C) acne rosacea
(D) acne vulgaris
29. A skin disorder most often caused by the herpes virus and consisting of red lesions that look like targets is
(A) candidiasis
(B) erythema multiforme
(C) hirsutism
(D) keratosis pilaris
30. The vascular layer of skin is the
(A) dermis
(B) epidermis
(C) stratum corneum unguis
(D) hypodermis
(A) integumentary system
(B) lymphatic system
(C) musculoskeletal system
(D) nervous system
22. Clotrimazole and nystatin are both
(A) topical antifungals
(B) antiitch creams
(C) topical antibiotics
(D) used to treat eczema
23. Which skin neoplasm is associated with an increase in the growth of cells in the keratin layer of the epidermis caused by pressure or friction?
(A) callus
(B) keloid
(C) keratosis
(D) leukoplakia
24. In this condition, there is a scaly dermatitis affecting parts of the skin that are supplied by oil glands.
(A) chronic dermatitis
(B) contact dermatitis
(C) eczema
(D) seborrheic dermatitis
25. Which of the following is a fungal infection?
(A) lichen planus
(B) keratosis
(C) suborrhea
(D) tinea capitis
26. A groove or a cracklike sore is called a (an.
(A) fissure
(B) nodule
(C) polyp
(D) ulcer
27. Which of the following is transcribed correctly?
(A) This 58yearold woman had a biopsy proven melanom(A) Clarks level 1, on the left cheek.
(B) This 58yearold woman had a biopsyproven melanom(A) Clark's level 1, on the left cheek.
(C) This 58yearold woman had a biopsy proven melen(A) Clark level 1, on the left cheek
(D) This 58yearold woman had a biopsyproven melanom(A) Clark level 1, on the left cheek.
28. Follicular dilation involving the nose and portions of the cheeks, erythema, papules, and pustules are classic signs of this dermatologic disorder.
(A) acne cosmetica
(B) acne pustulosa
(C) acne rosacea
(D) acne vulgaris
29. A skin disorder most often caused by the herpes virus and consisting of red lesions that look like targets is
(A) candidiasis
(B) erythema multiforme
(C) hirsutism
(D) keratosis pilaris
30. The vascular layer of skin is the
(A) dermis
(B) epidermis
(C) stratum corneum unguis
(D) hypodermis
31. When scraping for demodex, it may be helpful to pinch the skin while you scrap(E)
(A) True
(B) False
32. Impetigo is confined to the glabrous areas of a dog's body
(A) True
(B) False
33. What is the growth phase of a hair follicle?
(A) Anagen
(B) Catagen
(C) Growagen
(D) Telogen
34. What is one way to distinguise ARF from FAD?
(A) Excoriations
(B) Papules
(C) GI Signs
(D) Scratching of muzzle
35. Atopy is curable
(A) True
(B) False
36. Animals with fur have what type of follicles?
(A) Simple
(B) Intermediate
(C) Compound
(D) Fuzzy
37. When is a dog "cured" of demodex?
(A) Disease free for 1 year
(B) After 2 negative scrapes
(C) Never
(D) After 1 negative scrape
38. Dermatophilosis is zoonotic
(A) True
(B) False
39. Accral lick dermatitis can be a behavioral problem
(A) True
(B) False
40. Superficial pyoderma is a secondary disease process.
(A) True
(B) False
(A) True
(B) False
32. Impetigo is confined to the glabrous areas of a dog's body
(A) True
(B) False
33. What is the growth phase of a hair follicle?
(A) Anagen
(B) Catagen
(C) Growagen
(D) Telogen
34. What is one way to distinguise ARF from FAD?
(A) Excoriations
(B) Papules
(C) GI Signs
(D) Scratching of muzzle
35. Atopy is curable
(A) True
(B) False
36. Animals with fur have what type of follicles?
(A) Simple
(B) Intermediate
(C) Compound
(D) Fuzzy
37. When is a dog "cured" of demodex?
(A) Disease free for 1 year
(B) After 2 negative scrapes
(C) Never
(D) After 1 negative scrape
38. Dermatophilosis is zoonotic
(A) True
(B) False
39. Accral lick dermatitis can be a behavioral problem
(A) True
(B) False
40. Superficial pyoderma is a secondary disease process.
(A) True
(B) False
41. Eosinophillic Granuloma Complex is a disease in and of itself.
(A) True
(B) False
42. FAD is what type of reaction?
(A) Type I (Misse(D)
(B) Type II
(C) Type III
(D) Type IV (Misse(D)
Ans: A,D
43. All in contact dogs should be treated in a scabies cas(E)
(A) True
(B) False
44. Canine FAD lesions are usually found on the rump, feline are on the hea(D)
(A) True
(B) False
45. Failure to treat localized demedocosis will cause the dog to develop generalized demedocsis later on.
(A) True
(B) False
46. What is the resting phase of a hair follicle?
(A) Anagen
(B) Catagen
(C) Relaxagen
(D) Telogen
47. Notoedres can only infect cats
(A) True
(B) False
48. Wetting an area down with alchohol before plucking hairs for culture will decrease inaccurate tests.
(A) True
(B) False
49. What is the signalment for pemphigus foliaceus?
(A) Any age
(B) Elderly animals
(C) Very young puppies
(D) Young to middle aged adults
50. Otitis externa is very common in dogs with scabies.
(A) True
(B) False
(A) True
(B) False
42. FAD is what type of reaction?
(A) Type I (Misse(D)
(B) Type II
(C) Type III
(D) Type IV (Misse(D)
Ans: A,D
43. All in contact dogs should be treated in a scabies cas(E)
(A) True
(B) False
44. Canine FAD lesions are usually found on the rump, feline are on the hea(D)
(A) True
(B) False
45. Failure to treat localized demedocosis will cause the dog to develop generalized demedocsis later on.
(A) True
(B) False
46. What is the resting phase of a hair follicle?
(A) Anagen
(B) Catagen
(C) Relaxagen
(D) Telogen
47. Notoedres can only infect cats
(A) True
(B) False
48. Wetting an area down with alchohol before plucking hairs for culture will decrease inaccurate tests.
(A) True
(B) False
49. What is the signalment for pemphigus foliaceus?
(A) Any age
(B) Elderly animals
(C) Very young puppies
(D) Young to middle aged adults
50. Otitis externa is very common in dogs with scabies.
(A) True
(B) False
51. Juvenile Cellulitis can appear in days
(A) True
(B) False
52. Age of onsent for puppy pyoderma
(A) 29 Months
(B) 36 months
(C) 6 months 1 year
(D) 8 weeks6 months
53. What is the transition phase of a hair follicle?
(A) Telogen
(B) Catagen
(C) Zenagen
(D) Anagen
54. In atopy, the allergens are absorbed via the skin
(A) True
(B) False
55. Puppies grow out of their puppy coats
(A) True
(B) False
56. When culturing a pustule, the area must first be cleaned
(A) True
(B) False
57. Juvenile Cellulitis in dogs usually affects what part of the body
(A) Face
(B) Glabrous areas
(C) Body wide
(D) Axilla
58. What is the signalment for juvenile cellulitis
(A) 6 month
(B) 1 year
(C) 316 week old puppies
(D) 812 weeks
59. Demodex mites live where?
(A) Stratum Corneum
(B) All skin layers
(C) In the follicle
(D) On the hair shaft
60. FAD and insect hypersensitivity in horses are both similar not only in their presentation, but also in their "cure".
(A) True
(B) False
(A) True
(B) False
52. Age of onsent for puppy pyoderma
(A) 29 Months
(B) 36 months
(C) 6 months 1 year
(D) 8 weeks6 months
53. What is the transition phase of a hair follicle?
(A) Telogen
(B) Catagen
(C) Zenagen
(D) Anagen
54. In atopy, the allergens are absorbed via the skin
(A) True
(B) False
55. Puppies grow out of their puppy coats
(A) True
(B) False
56. When culturing a pustule, the area must first be cleaned
(A) True
(B) False
57. Juvenile Cellulitis in dogs usually affects what part of the body
(A) Face
(B) Glabrous areas
(C) Body wide
(D) Axilla
58. What is the signalment for juvenile cellulitis
(A) 6 month
(B) 1 year
(C) 316 week old puppies
(D) 812 weeks
59. Demodex mites live where?
(A) Stratum Corneum
(B) All skin layers
(C) In the follicle
(D) On the hair shaft
60. FAD and insect hypersensitivity in horses are both similar not only in their presentation, but also in their "cure".
(A) True
(B) False
61. Demodectic mange is pruritic
(A) True
(B) False
62. It is necessary to clean the environment to eliminate ringworm
(A) True
(B) False
63. Which AB is responsible for atopy?
(A) IgA
(B) IgE
(C) IgG
(D) IgW
64. If not pruritic, linear granulomas should be treated how
(A) Prednisone
(B) Prednisolone
(C) Scientific Neglect
(D) Cyclosporin
65. Where are scabies mites found?
(A) Hair Follicles
(B) Stratum Corneum
(C) Subepidermal
(D) Throughout the skin layers
66 Surface irritation and inflammation caused by frictional trauma of skin on skin
(A) Skin Fold Dermatitis
(B) Furunculosis
(C) Alopecia
(D) Vesicle
67. Small elevation of skin containing purulent material
(A) Papule
(B) Pustule
(C) Vesicle
(D) Cyst
68. An erosion exposes the dermis underneath
(A) True
(B) False
69. An ulcer is:
(A) Shallow Epidermal defect
(B) Break in epidermis with exposure of dermis
(C) Not good for coffee drinkers
(D) A primary problem
70. Alopecia is:
(A) Full or partial hair loss
(B) Difficult for men to deal with
(C) Only full hair loss
(D) Never where you want it to be
(A) True
(B) False
62. It is necessary to clean the environment to eliminate ringworm
(A) True
(B) False
63. Which AB is responsible for atopy?
(A) IgA
(B) IgE
(C) IgG
(D) IgW
64. If not pruritic, linear granulomas should be treated how
(A) Prednisone
(B) Prednisolone
(C) Scientific Neglect
(D) Cyclosporin
65. Where are scabies mites found?
(A) Hair Follicles
(B) Stratum Corneum
(C) Subepidermal
(D) Throughout the skin layers
66 Surface irritation and inflammation caused by frictional trauma of skin on skin
(A) Skin Fold Dermatitis
(B) Furunculosis
(C) Alopecia
(D) Vesicle
67. Small elevation of skin containing purulent material
(A) Papule
(B) Pustule
(C) Vesicle
(D) Cyst
68. An erosion exposes the dermis underneath
(A) True
(B) False
69. An ulcer is:
(A) Shallow Epidermal defect
(B) Break in epidermis with exposure of dermis
(C) Not good for coffee drinkers
(D) A primary problem
70. Alopecia is:
(A) Full or partial hair loss
(B) Difficult for men to deal with
(C) Only full hair loss
(D) Never where you want it to be
71. Pyotraumatic Dermatitis is also known as a "hot spot"
(A) True
(B) False
72. Excessive scaling is:
(A) Gross
(B) Seborrhea
(C) Dandruff
(D) Epidermal Collarette
73. A vesicle is a sharply circumscribed lesion containing fluid
(A) True
(B) False
74. What is another term for intertrigo?
(A) Furunculosis
(B) Pyotraumatic Dermatitis
(C) Skin Fold Dermatitis
75. Circumscribed, developmental skin defect
(A) Nevus
(B) Macule
(C) Papule
(D) Pustule
76. Scale is an accumulation of fragments of stratum corneum
(A) True
(B) False
77. Inflammation secondary to rupture of a hair follicle
(A) Furunculosis
(B) Pustule
(C) Vesicle
(D) Plaque
78. Remnants of a pustule, vesicle, or bulla can be
(A) Epidermal Collarette
(B) Scale
(C) Plaque
(D) Cyst
79. Circumscribed lesion that is raised and consists of edema is urticaria
(A) True
(B) False
80. What is a bulla?
(A) Taunted by a bulla fighta
(B) A large vesicle
(C) Hives
(D) A large cyst
(A) True
(B) False
72. Excessive scaling is:
(A) Gross
(B) Seborrhea
(C) Dandruff
(D) Epidermal Collarette
73. A vesicle is a sharply circumscribed lesion containing fluid
(A) True
(B) False
74. What is another term for intertrigo?
(A) Furunculosis
(B) Pyotraumatic Dermatitis
(C) Skin Fold Dermatitis
75. Circumscribed, developmental skin defect
(A) Nevus
(B) Macule
(C) Papule
(D) Pustule
76. Scale is an accumulation of fragments of stratum corneum
(A) True
(B) False
77. Inflammation secondary to rupture of a hair follicle
(A) Furunculosis
(B) Pustule
(C) Vesicle
(D) Plaque
78. Remnants of a pustule, vesicle, or bulla can be
(A) Epidermal Collarette
(B) Scale
(C) Plaque
(D) Cyst
79. Circumscribed lesion that is raised and consists of edema is urticaria
(A) True
(B) False
80. What is a bulla?
(A) Taunted by a bulla fighta
(B) A large vesicle
(C) Hives
(D) A large cyst
81. A comedone is a primary problem only
(A) True
(B) False
82. Actinic means related to chemically active rays of the electromagnetic spectrum.
(A) True
(B) False
83. Accumulation of keratin and follicular material that adheres to hair shaft
(A) Impetigo
(B) Scales
(C) Follicular Cast
84. Thickening of the epidermis and/or dermis
(A) Callus
(B) Lichenification
(C) Scaling
(D) Lacking in sensitive people
85. Circumscribed, nonpalpable area characterized by color change
(A) Patch
(B) Papule
(C) Macule
86. A patch is a large macule
(A) True
(B) False
87. "Scratch" is a lay term for excoriation
(A) True
(B) False
88. Dilated hair follicle containing cornified cells and debris
(A) Comedone
(B) Pustule
(C) Furunculosis
89. A cicatrix is:
(A) benign
(B) a lesion
(C) a scar
90. A cyst is a closed sack of pouch under the skin.
(A) true
(B) false
(A) True
(B) False
82. Actinic means related to chemically active rays of the electromagnetic spectrum.
(A) True
(B) False
83. Accumulation of keratin and follicular material that adheres to hair shaft
(A) Impetigo
(B) Scales
(C) Follicular Cast
84. Thickening of the epidermis and/or dermis
(A) Callus
(B) Lichenification
(C) Scaling
(D) Lacking in sensitive people
85. Circumscribed, nonpalpable area characterized by color change
(A) Patch
(B) Papule
(C) Macule
86. A patch is a large macule
(A) True
(B) False
87. "Scratch" is a lay term for excoriation
(A) True
(B) False
88. Dilated hair follicle containing cornified cells and debris
(A) Comedone
(B) Pustule
(C) Furunculosis
89. A cicatrix is:
(A) benign
(B) a lesion
(C) a scar
90. A cyst is a closed sack of pouch under the skin.
(A) true
(B) false
91. Ecchymosis me
Ans:
(A) A condition of the ear
(B) Skin discoloration
(C) Excessive sweating
92. Eczema is an inflammatory condition of the skin.
(A) True
(B) False
93. Erythema:
(A) blood condition
(B) red
(C) lack of pigmentation
94. Gangrene is necrosis (dea(D) tissue due to decomposition.
(A) True
(B) False
95. Herpes is:
(A) An S.T.(D)
(B) a cold sore or fever blister
(C) an invasion of pyogenic bacterium
96. Herpes Zoster is most commonly known as:
(A) shingles
(B) an enlarged fever blister
(C) blue colored skin
97. Cyanoderma me
Ans:
(A) red skin
(B) blue skin
(C) yellow skin
98. Impetigo is a contagious bacterial skin infection with pustules that ruptur(E)
(A) True
(B) False
99. Kaposi's Sarcoma is a cancer associated with:
(A) Smokers
(B) (A)I.(D)S.
(C) Sun exposure
100. A Laceration is:
(A) a pathological change in tissue
(B) torn skin
(C) laser treatment for skin diseas(E)
101. Metastasis means to:
(A) spread infection from one person to another
(B) move or spread through the blood stream or lymph nodes
(C) abnormal breast condition
102. Benign means non-cancerous.
(A) True
(B) False
103. A 1st degree burn is:
(A) the most severe type of burn
(B) superficial burn injuring the top layer of skin
(C) the first time the patient has been burne(D)
104. ___________ means itching caused by dry skin, parasitic infection or diseas(E)
(A) Scabies
(B) Herpes Zoster
(C) Pruritis
105. Tinea ________ means ring worm, athlete's foot.
(A) purpura
(B) impetigo
(C) corporis
106. Scabies is a contagious skin condition caused by parasitic mites.
(A) True
(B) False
107. Pediculosis me
Ans:
(A) Inflammatory condition of the skin.
(B) Infestation with lice
(C) Irritated and peeling feet.
108. Petechiae is a small _____________ spot on the skin.
(A) hemorragic
(B) raised
(C) discolored
109. Urticaria me
Ans:
(A) allergic reaction of the skin
(B) thickened skin
(C) dead tissue
110. SLE stands for_________________ and is an autoimmune diseas(E)
(A) squamous laceration ecchymosis
(B) systemic lupus erythematosus
(C) septic lymphodic edema
111. Similar to a vescle but larger usually more than 5mm in diameter, consisting of clear fluid accumulated within or below the epidermis.
(A) Vesicle
(B) Pustule
(C) Bulla
(D) Cyst
112. Dried exudate on the surface of the skin.
(A) Plaque
(B) Crust
(C) Scale
113. A localised area of colour or textural change in the skin
(A) Macule
(B) Ecchymosis
(C) Freckle
114. Alopecia is the absence of hair?
(A) True
(B) False
115. Atrophic skin is thin, translucent and wrinkled with easily visable blood vessels
(A) True
(B) False
116. An acute abcess formation in adjacent hair follicles.
(A) Carbuncle
(B) Furuncle
(C) Folliculitis
117. A compressible papule or plaque of dermal oedema, red or white in colour.
(A) Urticaria (Misse(D)
(B) Erythema
(C) Wheal (Misse(D)
(D) Purpura
Ans: A,C
118. A pustule is a visible collection of pus in a blister. Pustules can be seen in psoriasis
(A) True
(B) False
119. A purulent inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissue
(A) Erythema
(B) Ecchymosis
(C) Cellulitis
120. A small solid elevation of the skin, generally defined as less than 5mm, maybe flat or domeshape(D)
(A) Nodule
(B) Papule
(C) Macule
121. Irritants cause more contact dermatitis than allergens do?
(A) True
(B) False
122. Contact dermatitis, which of the following are common irritants?
(A) Water (Misse(D)
(B) temperature extremes (Misse(D)
(C) Frictional abrasives (Misse(D)
(D) Nickel
123. Atopic eczema induces lichenification
(A) True
(B) False
124. Treatments used to treat Atopic eczema
(A) Emollients (Misse(D)
(B) Antihistamines (Misse(D)
(C) Hot baths
(D) Topical steroids (Misse(D)
(E) Antibiotics (Misse(D)
125. Types of Eczema
(A) Discoid eczema (Misse(D)
(B) Seborrhoeic Dermatitis (Misse(D)
(C) Venous eczema (Misse(D)
(D) Arthiritic dermatitis
(E) Lichen simplex chronicus (Misse(D)
F. Lichen striatus (Misse(D)
Go to next Page: Ans:
(A) A condition of the ear
(B) Skin discoloration
(C) Excessive sweating
92. Eczema is an inflammatory condition of the skin.
(A) True
(B) False
93. Erythema:
(A) blood condition
(B) red
(C) lack of pigmentation
94. Gangrene is necrosis (dea(D) tissue due to decomposition.
(A) True
(B) False
95. Herpes is:
(A) An S.T.(D)
(B) a cold sore or fever blister
(C) an invasion of pyogenic bacterium
96. Herpes Zoster is most commonly known as:
(A) shingles
(B) an enlarged fever blister
(C) blue colored skin
97. Cyanoderma me
Ans:
(A) red skin
(B) blue skin
(C) yellow skin
98. Impetigo is a contagious bacterial skin infection with pustules that ruptur(E)
(A) True
(B) False
99. Kaposi's Sarcoma is a cancer associated with:
(A) Smokers
(B) (A)I.(D)S.
(C) Sun exposure
100. A Laceration is:
(A) a pathological change in tissue
(B) torn skin
(C) laser treatment for skin diseas(E)
101. Metastasis means to:
(A) spread infection from one person to another
(B) move or spread through the blood stream or lymph nodes
(C) abnormal breast condition
102. Benign means non-cancerous.
(A) True
(B) False
103. A 1st degree burn is:
(A) the most severe type of burn
(B) superficial burn injuring the top layer of skin
(C) the first time the patient has been burne(D)
104. ___________ means itching caused by dry skin, parasitic infection or diseas(E)
(A) Scabies
(B) Herpes Zoster
(C) Pruritis
105. Tinea ________ means ring worm, athlete's foot.
(A) purpura
(B) impetigo
(C) corporis
106. Scabies is a contagious skin condition caused by parasitic mites.
(A) True
(B) False
107. Pediculosis me
Ans:
(A) Inflammatory condition of the skin.
(B) Infestation with lice
(C) Irritated and peeling feet.
108. Petechiae is a small _____________ spot on the skin.
(A) hemorragic
(B) raised
(C) discolored
109. Urticaria me
Ans:
(A) allergic reaction of the skin
(B) thickened skin
(C) dead tissue
110. SLE stands for_________________ and is an autoimmune diseas(E)
(A) squamous laceration ecchymosis
(B) systemic lupus erythematosus
(C) septic lymphodic edema
111. Similar to a vescle but larger usually more than 5mm in diameter, consisting of clear fluid accumulated within or below the epidermis.
(A) Vesicle
(B) Pustule
(C) Bulla
(D) Cyst
112. Dried exudate on the surface of the skin.
(A) Plaque
(B) Crust
(C) Scale
113. A localised area of colour or textural change in the skin
(A) Macule
(B) Ecchymosis
(C) Freckle
114. Alopecia is the absence of hair?
(A) True
(B) False
115. Atrophic skin is thin, translucent and wrinkled with easily visable blood vessels
(A) True
(B) False
116. An acute abcess formation in adjacent hair follicles.
(A) Carbuncle
(B) Furuncle
(C) Folliculitis
117. A compressible papule or plaque of dermal oedema, red or white in colour.
(A) Urticaria (Misse(D)
(B) Erythema
(C) Wheal (Misse(D)
(D) Purpura
Ans: A,C
118. A pustule is a visible collection of pus in a blister. Pustules can be seen in psoriasis
(A) True
(B) False
119. A purulent inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissue
(A) Erythema
(B) Ecchymosis
(C) Cellulitis
120. A small solid elevation of the skin, generally defined as less than 5mm, maybe flat or domeshape(D)
(A) Nodule
(B) Papule
(C) Macule
121. Irritants cause more contact dermatitis than allergens do?
(A) True
(B) False
122. Contact dermatitis, which of the following are common irritants?
(A) Water (Misse(D)
(B) temperature extremes (Misse(D)
(C) Frictional abrasives (Misse(D)
(D) Nickel
123. Atopic eczema induces lichenification
(A) True
(B) False
124. Treatments used to treat Atopic eczema
(A) Emollients (Misse(D)
(B) Antihistamines (Misse(D)
(C) Hot baths
(D) Topical steroids (Misse(D)
(E) Antibiotics (Misse(D)
125. Types of Eczema
(A) Discoid eczema (Misse(D)
(B) Seborrhoeic Dermatitis (Misse(D)
(C) Venous eczema (Misse(D)
(D) Arthiritic dermatitis
(E) Lichen simplex chronicus (Misse(D)
F. Lichen striatus (Misse(D)
MCQ's on Dermatology for Staff Nurses and Medical Exam [Objective]
Reviewed by ADMIN
on
September 22, 2016
Rating: 5
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