Medical Microbiology MCQ's for Staff Nurse and Medical Exam [Objective]
by ADMIN
September 24, 2016
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1. Food poisoning is caused by
a. Clostridum tetani
b. Clostridum Welchi
c. Diptheria
d. Clostridium botulinum
2. Koplic’s spots will develop in
a. HIV
b. Measles
c. Mumps
d. Rubella
3. Viral DNA is resistant to DNA of the host cell because it contains
a. 5’-HMC
b. 5’-HMA
c. 5’-CHM
d. 5’MHC
4. Which of the following is an example of live vaccine?
a. pertusis
b. mumps
c. cholera
d. rabies
5. Triple toxoid vaccine gives protection against
a. Diphtheria, tetanus and rabies
b. Tetanus, whooping cough, Tuberculosis
c. Whooping cough, tetanus and Diphtheria
d. Whooping cough, cancer and T.B.
6. Higher does of chloramphenicol affects the eukaryotic cells because
a. They have 30 S ribosomes
b. They have mitochondria
c. They have 70 S ribosomes
d. None of the above
7. AIDS is caused by
a. Retrovirus
b. Prion
c. Rhabdovirus
d. Retroprison
8. Penicillin is a
a. Primary metabolite
b. Secondary metabolite
c. Tertiary metabolite
d. None of the above
9. The rejection of an organ transplant such as a kidney transplant, is an example of _____ Hypersensitivity.
a. Immediate
b. Delayed
c. Allergy
d. None of these
10. Listeriosis was ______ disease.
a. Food borne
b. Water borne
c. Milk borne
d. Air borne
11. Pus-forming forms are called as
a. Pyoderm
b. Pyogenic
c. Pyrogen
d. None of the above
12. In Elisa technique, the antibodies are labeled by
a. Acridine orange
b. Alkaline phosphate
c. Neutral red
d. Bromothymol blue
13. _____ is a genetic disease charachterized by a total or partial inability to synthesize globulins.
a. Apitososis
b. Agamma globulinemia
c. Gammaglobulinemma
d. Sickle-cell anemia.
14. A study involving analysis of risk for genetic defects in a family is
a. Genetic Engineering
b. Genetic counseling
c. Genetic drift
d. Genetic equilibrium
15. Viral antigens are likely
a. Proteins
b. Glyco proteins
c. Lipo proteins
d. Both a and b
a. Clostridum tetani
b. Clostridum Welchi
c. Diptheria
d. Clostridium botulinum
2. Koplic’s spots will develop in
a. HIV
b. Measles
c. Mumps
d. Rubella
3. Viral DNA is resistant to DNA of the host cell because it contains
a. 5’-HMC
b. 5’-HMA
c. 5’-CHM
d. 5’MHC
4. Which of the following is an example of live vaccine?
a. pertusis
b. mumps
c. cholera
d. rabies
5. Triple toxoid vaccine gives protection against
a. Diphtheria, tetanus and rabies
b. Tetanus, whooping cough, Tuberculosis
c. Whooping cough, tetanus and Diphtheria
d. Whooping cough, cancer and T.B.
6. Higher does of chloramphenicol affects the eukaryotic cells because
a. They have 30 S ribosomes
b. They have mitochondria
c. They have 70 S ribosomes
d. None of the above
7. AIDS is caused by
a. Retrovirus
b. Prion
c. Rhabdovirus
d. Retroprison
8. Penicillin is a
a. Primary metabolite
b. Secondary metabolite
c. Tertiary metabolite
d. None of the above
9. The rejection of an organ transplant such as a kidney transplant, is an example of _____ Hypersensitivity.
a. Immediate
b. Delayed
c. Allergy
d. None of these
10. Listeriosis was ______ disease.
a. Food borne
b. Water borne
c. Milk borne
d. Air borne
11. Pus-forming forms are called as
a. Pyoderm
b. Pyogenic
c. Pyrogen
d. None of the above
12. In Elisa technique, the antibodies are labeled by
a. Acridine orange
b. Alkaline phosphate
c. Neutral red
d. Bromothymol blue
13. _____ is a genetic disease charachterized by a total or partial inability to synthesize globulins.
a. Apitososis
b. Agamma globulinemia
c. Gammaglobulinemma
d. Sickle-cell anemia.
14. A study involving analysis of risk for genetic defects in a family is
a. Genetic Engineering
b. Genetic counseling
c. Genetic drift
d. Genetic equilibrium
15. Viral antigens are likely
a. Proteins
b. Glyco proteins
c. Lipo proteins
d. Both a and b
16. The suitable assay method for antibiotics is
a. Enzymatic assay
b. Turbidometric assay
c. End point determination assay
d. Metabolic assay
17. ELISA test is used for the identification of
a. Janudice
b. AIDS
c. Cancer
d. Diabetis
18. Incubation period for infective Hepatitis disease
a. 45 – 80 days
b. 15 – 35 days
c. 35 – 50 days
d. 5 – 15 days
19. All of the following are bacteriostatic chemotherapeutic agents except
a. Bacitracin
b. Chloramphenicol
c. Novobiocin
d. Tetracycline
20. Kinetosomes are observed in
a. Algae
b. Fungi
c. Protozoa
d. Viruses
21. ß-lactum ring is present in
a. Erythromycin
b. Penicillin
c. Tetracyclins
d. Chromphenical
22. Antibiotic produced from streptomyces orientalis is
a. Streptomycin
b. Penicillin
c. Vancomycin
d. Both a and b
23. The drug of choice for dermal, oral and vaginal candidiasis is
a. Griseofulvin
b. Amphoterein B
c. Gentian violet
d. Nystatin
24. Botulism means
a. Food adultration
b. Food poisioning by streptococcus bacteria
c. Chemical contamination of food
d. Food processing
25. Chloramphenicol is obtained from
a. Streptomyces griseus
b. Streptomyces venezuelae
c. Streptomyces pyrogenes
d. None of these
26. Streptomycin is obtained from
a. Streptococcus species
b. Streptomyces griseus
c. Straphylococcus aureus
d. None of these
27. The treatment required for small bodies of water is
a. Disinfection
b. Filtration
c. Purification
d. All of these
28. Surface ropiness is caused by
a. Alkaligenes viscolactis
b. Streptococcus
c. both a and b
d. None of these
29. Septicaemia is
a. Bacteria in blood
b. Toxin in blood
c. Pus in blood
d. Multiplication of bacteria and toxins in blood
30. In AIDS, Kaposis sarcoma may respond to
a. Interleukin – 2 infusion
b. Azathioprine
c. Alpha interferon
d. None of these
a. Enzymatic assay
b. Turbidometric assay
c. End point determination assay
d. Metabolic assay
17. ELISA test is used for the identification of
a. Janudice
b. AIDS
c. Cancer
d. Diabetis
18. Incubation period for infective Hepatitis disease
a. 45 – 80 days
b. 15 – 35 days
c. 35 – 50 days
d. 5 – 15 days
19. All of the following are bacteriostatic chemotherapeutic agents except
a. Bacitracin
b. Chloramphenicol
c. Novobiocin
d. Tetracycline
20. Kinetosomes are observed in
a. Algae
b. Fungi
c. Protozoa
d. Viruses
21. ß-lactum ring is present in
a. Erythromycin
b. Penicillin
c. Tetracyclins
d. Chromphenical
22. Antibiotic produced from streptomyces orientalis is
a. Streptomycin
b. Penicillin
c. Vancomycin
d. Both a and b
23. The drug of choice for dermal, oral and vaginal candidiasis is
a. Griseofulvin
b. Amphoterein B
c. Gentian violet
d. Nystatin
24. Botulism means
a. Food adultration
b. Food poisioning by streptococcus bacteria
c. Chemical contamination of food
d. Food processing
25. Chloramphenicol is obtained from
a. Streptomyces griseus
b. Streptomyces venezuelae
c. Streptomyces pyrogenes
d. None of these
26. Streptomycin is obtained from
a. Streptococcus species
b. Streptomyces griseus
c. Straphylococcus aureus
d. None of these
27. The treatment required for small bodies of water is
a. Disinfection
b. Filtration
c. Purification
d. All of these
28. Surface ropiness is caused by
a. Alkaligenes viscolactis
b. Streptococcus
c. both a and b
d. None of these
29. Septicaemia is
a. Bacteria in blood
b. Toxin in blood
c. Pus in blood
d. Multiplication of bacteria and toxins in blood
30. In AIDS, Kaposis sarcoma may respond to
a. Interleukin – 2 infusion
b. Azathioprine
c. Alpha interferon
d. None of these
31. Ciprofloxacin acts by inhibiting
a. Cellwall synthesis
b. RNA synthesis
c. Folate synthesis
d. DNA gyrase
32. Lyme disease is caused by
a. Bacteria
b. Fungi
c. Spirochaete
d. Virus
33. Toxic shock syndrome is caused by
a. Staph. albus
b. Staph. aureus
c. Strep. viridana
d. None of these
34. Black water fever is caused by
a. P. vivax
b. P. falciparum
c. P. ovale
d. None of these
35. Mantoux test detects
a. M. tuberculosis
b. Cynaobacteria
c. Clostridia
d. Both a and b
36. The antibiotic acting on cell wall is
a. Bactracin
b. Penicillin
c. Cyclosporine
d. All of these
37. Aflatoxin is produced by
a. Aspergillus sps
b. Penicillium sps
c. Alternaria sps
d. None of these
38. Penicillin is discovered by
a. Fleming
b. Pasteur
c. Koch
d. None of these
39. Antibiotics used in combination may demonstrate
a. Synergism
b. Antaginism
c. both
d. None of these
40. The drug of choice in anaphylactic shock is
a. Histamine
b. Corticosteroid
c. Epinephrine
d. None of these
41. Drugs of choice for treatment of Mycoplasma infections:
a. Tetracyclines
b. Erythromycin
c. a and b
d. Penicillins
42. A number of viruses are known to infect mycoplasmas, called
a. Bacteriophages
b. Mycoplasma phages
c. Virions
d. Tiny strains
43. The following are true about Rickettsiae.
a. Unicellular organisms
b. Prokaryotic intracellular parasites
c. Presence of 70 S ribosomes
d. It causes hemolysis in human beings
e. Gram negative plemorphic rods
44. The causative agent of scrub typhus:
a. R.Quintana
b. R.rickettsii
c. R.orinetalis
d. R.prowazekii
45. Lymphogranuloma venerum (LGV) is a sexually transmitted disease is caused by
a. Copthalmia
b. C.trachomatis
c. C.pneumonias
d. C.psittasi
a. Cellwall synthesis
b. RNA synthesis
c. Folate synthesis
d. DNA gyrase
32. Lyme disease is caused by
a. Bacteria
b. Fungi
c. Spirochaete
d. Virus
33. Toxic shock syndrome is caused by
a. Staph. albus
b. Staph. aureus
c. Strep. viridana
d. None of these
34. Black water fever is caused by
a. P. vivax
b. P. falciparum
c. P. ovale
d. None of these
35. Mantoux test detects
a. M. tuberculosis
b. Cynaobacteria
c. Clostridia
d. Both a and b
36. The antibiotic acting on cell wall is
a. Bactracin
b. Penicillin
c. Cyclosporine
d. All of these
37. Aflatoxin is produced by
a. Aspergillus sps
b. Penicillium sps
c. Alternaria sps
d. None of these
38. Penicillin is discovered by
a. Fleming
b. Pasteur
c. Koch
d. None of these
39. Antibiotics used in combination may demonstrate
a. Synergism
b. Antaginism
c. both
d. None of these
40. The drug of choice in anaphylactic shock is
a. Histamine
b. Corticosteroid
c. Epinephrine
d. None of these
41. Drugs of choice for treatment of Mycoplasma infections:
a. Tetracyclines
b. Erythromycin
c. a and b
d. Penicillins
42. A number of viruses are known to infect mycoplasmas, called
a. Bacteriophages
b. Mycoplasma phages
c. Virions
d. Tiny strains
43. The following are true about Rickettsiae.
a. Unicellular organisms
b. Prokaryotic intracellular parasites
c. Presence of 70 S ribosomes
d. It causes hemolysis in human beings
e. Gram negative plemorphic rods
44. The causative agent of scrub typhus:
a. R.Quintana
b. R.rickettsii
c. R.orinetalis
d. R.prowazekii
45. Lymphogranuloma venerum (LGV) is a sexually transmitted disease is caused by
a. Copthalmia
b. C.trachomatis
c. C.pneumonias
d. C.psittasi
46. Intradermal test employed for diagnosis of LGV is
a. Frei test
b. Mantoux test
c. Schick test
d. Dick test
47. Which algae is pathogenic to human?
a. Cephaloeuros
b. Ulothrix
c. Macrocystis
d. Prototheca
48. Erythromycin is obtained from
a. S.griseus
b. S.rimosus
c. S.scabies
d. S.erythraeus
49. Common cold is caused by
a. Adeno virus
b. Corono virus
c. Hepatitis virus
d. Pox virus
50. The causative agent of conjunctivitis:
a. Adeno virus
b. Corono virus
c. Paramyxo virus
d. None of these
51. Antibiotics used for treatment of cholera are
a. Tetracyclines
b. Penicillins
c. Streptomycines
d. None of these
52. Salmonella typhi is causative organism of
a. Undulent fever
b. Remittent fever
c. Dengue fever
d. Enteric fever
53. Which of the following Salmonella paratyphi is the commonest in India?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. None of these
54. In enteric fever, the organ lodging maximum number of the organism is
a. Liver
b. Gall bladder
c. Small intestine
d. Large intestine
55. True about Enteric fever is
a. Bacteraemia in first week
b. Carrier in 90%
c. All serotypes cause the disease
d. Rosy spots on 18th day
56. Gastroenteritis is caused by
a. Shigella
b. V.cholerae
c. V.cholera Parahaenolyticus
d. S.typhi
57. E.coli produces the following toxins:
a. Enterotoxins
b. Endotoxins
c. Verocytotoxins
d. Hemolysins
58. The following infections caused by Esch. Coli, except
a. Urinary tract infections
b. Septic infections of wounds
c. Diarrhoea
d. Dysentery
e. Meningitis
59. Diphtheria is caused by
a. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
b. C. Bovis
c. C. Jeikeium
d. C. equi
60. Causative organism of diphtheria was first demonstrated by
a. Robert Koch
b. Lois Pasteur
c. Klebs and Loeffler
d. Volhard and Fahr
a. Frei test
b. Mantoux test
c. Schick test
d. Dick test
47. Which algae is pathogenic to human?
a. Cephaloeuros
b. Ulothrix
c. Macrocystis
d. Prototheca
48. Erythromycin is obtained from
a. S.griseus
b. S.rimosus
c. S.scabies
d. S.erythraeus
49. Common cold is caused by
a. Adeno virus
b. Corono virus
c. Hepatitis virus
d. Pox virus
50. The causative agent of conjunctivitis:
a. Adeno virus
b. Corono virus
c. Paramyxo virus
d. None of these
51. Antibiotics used for treatment of cholera are
a. Tetracyclines
b. Penicillins
c. Streptomycines
d. None of these
52. Salmonella typhi is causative organism of
a. Undulent fever
b. Remittent fever
c. Dengue fever
d. Enteric fever
53. Which of the following Salmonella paratyphi is the commonest in India?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. None of these
54. In enteric fever, the organ lodging maximum number of the organism is
a. Liver
b. Gall bladder
c. Small intestine
d. Large intestine
55. True about Enteric fever is
a. Bacteraemia in first week
b. Carrier in 90%
c. All serotypes cause the disease
d. Rosy spots on 18th day
56. Gastroenteritis is caused by
a. Shigella
b. V.cholerae
c. V.cholera Parahaenolyticus
d. S.typhi
57. E.coli produces the following toxins:
a. Enterotoxins
b. Endotoxins
c. Verocytotoxins
d. Hemolysins
58. The following infections caused by Esch. Coli, except
a. Urinary tract infections
b. Septic infections of wounds
c. Diarrhoea
d. Dysentery
e. Meningitis
59. Diphtheria is caused by
a. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
b. C. Bovis
c. C. Jeikeium
d. C. equi
60. Causative organism of diphtheria was first demonstrated by
a. Robert Koch
b. Lois Pasteur
c. Klebs and Loeffler
d. Volhard and Fahr
61. Coryne bacterium is
a. Gram positive
b. Resistant to Penicillin
c. Gram negative
d. Resistant to Chloramphenicol
62. C. diphtheriae consists of
a. Startch granules
b. Polymeta phosphate granules
c. Lipid granules
d. None of these
63. The incubation period of diphtheriae is
a. Upto 2 weeks
b. Upto 1 week
c. 2–4 weeks
d. None of these
64. Diphtheria virulence test is
a. Ascoli’s thermoprecipitation test
b. Eleck’s gel precipitation test
c. C.R.P test
d. M.R.T. test
65. Diptheria toxoid is prepared by using
a. Aldehyde
b. Formalin
c. Phenols
d. None of these
66. Diphtheria is an example of
a. Bacteraemia
b. Pyaemia
c. Septicemia
d. Toxaemia
67. Main symptom of tuberculosis is
a. Tubercle formation
b. Liquid formation
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
68. BCG vaccine is for the prevention of
a. Brucellosis
b. Diphtheria
c. Botulism
d. Tuberculosis
69. Dose of BCG vaccine is
a. 0.2–0.5 ml
b. 0.1 ml
c. 0.05 ml
d. 0.2 to 0.3 ml
70. Negative Mantoux test is important in
a. Pulmonary Koch’s syndrome
b. Sarcoidosis
c. Carcinoma bronchus
d. Lymphoma
71. Bacilli Calmette Guerin (BCG) contains the avirulent strains of
a. Human tubercle bacilli
b. Avian tubercle bacilli
c. Bovine tubercle bacilli
d. A typical mycobacteria
72. Drugs used against tuberculosis (TB) are
a. Refampicin, Isoniazid
b. Pyrazinamide, Streptomycin
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
73. The greatest number of tubercle bacilli is present in
a. Large sized tuberculomas
b. Miliary tuberculosis
c. Tuberculous lymphadinitis
d. Tuberculous cavity of the lung
74. Histoid Hansen is a veriety of
a. Tuberculoid Leprosy
b. Borderline tuberculoid
c. Borderline lepramatous
d. Lepronmetous leprosy
75. Streptococcus pyogens produces all of the following lesions, except
a. Impetigo contagiosa
b. Erysipeals
c. Boil
d. Paronchia
a. Gram positive
b. Resistant to Penicillin
c. Gram negative
d. Resistant to Chloramphenicol
62. C. diphtheriae consists of
a. Startch granules
b. Polymeta phosphate granules
c. Lipid granules
d. None of these
63. The incubation period of diphtheriae is
a. Upto 2 weeks
b. Upto 1 week
c. 2–4 weeks
d. None of these
64. Diphtheria virulence test is
a. Ascoli’s thermoprecipitation test
b. Eleck’s gel precipitation test
c. C.R.P test
d. M.R.T. test
65. Diptheria toxoid is prepared by using
a. Aldehyde
b. Formalin
c. Phenols
d. None of these
66. Diphtheria is an example of
a. Bacteraemia
b. Pyaemia
c. Septicemia
d. Toxaemia
67. Main symptom of tuberculosis is
a. Tubercle formation
b. Liquid formation
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
68. BCG vaccine is for the prevention of
a. Brucellosis
b. Diphtheria
c. Botulism
d. Tuberculosis
69. Dose of BCG vaccine is
a. 0.2–0.5 ml
b. 0.1 ml
c. 0.05 ml
d. 0.2 to 0.3 ml
70. Negative Mantoux test is important in
a. Pulmonary Koch’s syndrome
b. Sarcoidosis
c. Carcinoma bronchus
d. Lymphoma
71. Bacilli Calmette Guerin (BCG) contains the avirulent strains of
a. Human tubercle bacilli
b. Avian tubercle bacilli
c. Bovine tubercle bacilli
d. A typical mycobacteria
72. Drugs used against tuberculosis (TB) are
a. Refampicin, Isoniazid
b. Pyrazinamide, Streptomycin
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
73. The greatest number of tubercle bacilli is present in
a. Large sized tuberculomas
b. Miliary tuberculosis
c. Tuberculous lymphadinitis
d. Tuberculous cavity of the lung
74. Histoid Hansen is a veriety of
a. Tuberculoid Leprosy
b. Borderline tuberculoid
c. Borderline lepramatous
d. Lepronmetous leprosy
75. Streptococcus pyogens produces all of the following lesions, except
a. Impetigo contagiosa
b. Erysipeals
c. Boil
d. Paronchia
76. Causative agent of Scarlet fever:
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus viridans
c. Stre. pyogens
d. None of these
77. Rheumatic fever is most commonly caused by
a. Str. viridans
b. Str. pyogenes
c. Stph. aures
d. None of these
78. Penicillin is the drug of choice for
a. Scarlet fever
b. Whooping cough
c. Brucellosis
d. Cholera
79. In human being str. pneumoniae causes
a. Septicaemia
b. Paronychia
c. Pneumomnia
d. None of these
80. Virulence factor for Stre. pneumoniae:
a. Capsular polysaccharide
b. Specific soluble substance
c. Vi-antigen
d. Forsmann antigen
81. Conjunctivitis in a new born is caused by
a. Streptococcus
b. Pneumococcus
c. Meningococci
d. None of these
82. Influenza is belonging to
a. Orthomyxoviridae
b. Retroviridae
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
83. Influenza virus contains
a. Eight segments of RNA
b. Two strands of RNA
c. Single RNA
d. None of these
84. ‘Reye’s syndrome’ is caused by
a. St.pneumoniae
b. St.pyogenes
c. Influenza
d. None of these
85. Geraman measles is also known as
a. Rubella / 2-day measles
b. Rubella / 3day measles
c. Rubella / 4-day measles
d. Rubella / 1-day measles
86. The commonest cause of rubella in new bornes
a. Congential rubella
b. Post natal rubella
c. Expanded rubella syndrome (ERS)
d. Both a and c
87. Mumps virus is belonging go
a. Retroviriae
b. Paramyxoviriae
c. Orthomyxo viridae
d. None of these
88. Measles is characterized by
a. Negribodies
b. Babes-Ernest granules
c. Koplik’s spots
d. Fever
89. Brucella causes
a. Pertusis
b. Plague
c. Brucellosis
d. None of these
90. Mediterranian fever is caused by
a. M. tuberculosis
b. S. typhi
c. C.neoformans
d. Brucella
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus viridans
c. Stre. pyogens
d. None of these
77. Rheumatic fever is most commonly caused by
a. Str. viridans
b. Str. pyogenes
c. Stph. aures
d. None of these
78. Penicillin is the drug of choice for
a. Scarlet fever
b. Whooping cough
c. Brucellosis
d. Cholera
79. In human being str. pneumoniae causes
a. Septicaemia
b. Paronychia
c. Pneumomnia
d. None of these
80. Virulence factor for Stre. pneumoniae:
a. Capsular polysaccharide
b. Specific soluble substance
c. Vi-antigen
d. Forsmann antigen
81. Conjunctivitis in a new born is caused by
a. Streptococcus
b. Pneumococcus
c. Meningococci
d. None of these
82. Influenza is belonging to
a. Orthomyxoviridae
b. Retroviridae
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
83. Influenza virus contains
a. Eight segments of RNA
b. Two strands of RNA
c. Single RNA
d. None of these
84. ‘Reye’s syndrome’ is caused by
a. St.pneumoniae
b. St.pyogenes
c. Influenza
d. None of these
85. Geraman measles is also known as
a. Rubella / 2-day measles
b. Rubella / 3day measles
c. Rubella / 4-day measles
d. Rubella / 1-day measles
86. The commonest cause of rubella in new bornes
a. Congential rubella
b. Post natal rubella
c. Expanded rubella syndrome (ERS)
d. Both a and c
87. Mumps virus is belonging go
a. Retroviriae
b. Paramyxoviriae
c. Orthomyxo viridae
d. None of these
88. Measles is characterized by
a. Negribodies
b. Babes-Ernest granules
c. Koplik’s spots
d. Fever
89. Brucella causes
a. Pertusis
b. Plague
c. Brucellosis
d. None of these
90. Mediterranian fever is caused by
a. M. tuberculosis
b. S. typhi
c. C.neoformans
d. Brucella
91. Which of the following test is specific for Brucellosis?
a. Frei
b. Weil
c. Castaneda strip
d. Rose water
92. Malignant pustule is caused by
a. Anthrax
b. Tetanus
c. Diphtheria
d. None of these
93. The commonest form of anthrax in man is
a. Alimentary
b. Cutaneous
c. Pulmonary
d. Hepatic
94. The animals most frequently infected with anthrax are
a. Sheep
b. Cattle
c. Goats
d. All of these
95. Virus causing Rabies is
a. Orthromyxo virus
b. Paramyxo virus
c. Rhbdo virus
d. Toga viruses
96. Rhabdo viruses are belonging to the family:
a. Rhabdo viridae
b. Toga viridae
c. Paramyxo viridae
d. None of these
97. Rabies Virus isolated from natural human or animal infection is termed as
a. Street virus
b. Fixed virus
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
98. Rabies virus can multiply in
a. The central nervous system only
b. The peripheral nerves
c. Muscle tissues
d. All the above
99. Neurological complications following rabies vaccines is common with
a. Chick embryo vaccine
b. HDCS vaccine
c. Semple vaccine
d. BPL vaccine
100. Which anti rabic vaccine has been recommended by WHO as the most effective?
a. Duck embryo vaccine
b. HDCS vaccine
c. Sheep brain vaccine
d. BPL vaccine
101. The causative agent of tetanus is
a. Clostridium botulinum
b. Cl. tetani
c. Cl. welchii
d. Cl. perfringens
102. The mode of spread of tetanus neurotoxin from blood to brain is
a. Via lymphaties
b. Arterial blood
c. Cranial nerves
d. None of these
103. Tetanus is caused by spread of
a. Exotoxin in sympathetic system
b. Exotoxin in para sympathetic system
c. Endotoxin in sympathetic system
d. Endotoxin in parasympathetic system
104. The first symptom of tetanus is
a. Lock jaw
b. Trismus
c. Anorexia
d. Dyspagia
105. Of which clostridia, the neurotoxin is most powerful?
a. Cl. tetani
b. Cl. welchii
c. Cl. botulism
d. Cl. septicum
a. Frei
b. Weil
c. Castaneda strip
d. Rose water
92. Malignant pustule is caused by
a. Anthrax
b. Tetanus
c. Diphtheria
d. None of these
93. The commonest form of anthrax in man is
a. Alimentary
b. Cutaneous
c. Pulmonary
d. Hepatic
94. The animals most frequently infected with anthrax are
a. Sheep
b. Cattle
c. Goats
d. All of these
95. Virus causing Rabies is
a. Orthromyxo virus
b. Paramyxo virus
c. Rhbdo virus
d. Toga viruses
96. Rhabdo viruses are belonging to the family:
a. Rhabdo viridae
b. Toga viridae
c. Paramyxo viridae
d. None of these
97. Rabies Virus isolated from natural human or animal infection is termed as
a. Street virus
b. Fixed virus
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
98. Rabies virus can multiply in
a. The central nervous system only
b. The peripheral nerves
c. Muscle tissues
d. All the above
99. Neurological complications following rabies vaccines is common with
a. Chick embryo vaccine
b. HDCS vaccine
c. Semple vaccine
d. BPL vaccine
100. Which anti rabic vaccine has been recommended by WHO as the most effective?
a. Duck embryo vaccine
b. HDCS vaccine
c. Sheep brain vaccine
d. BPL vaccine
101. The causative agent of tetanus is
a. Clostridium botulinum
b. Cl. tetani
c. Cl. welchii
d. Cl. perfringens
102. The mode of spread of tetanus neurotoxin from blood to brain is
a. Via lymphaties
b. Arterial blood
c. Cranial nerves
d. None of these
103. Tetanus is caused by spread of
a. Exotoxin in sympathetic system
b. Exotoxin in para sympathetic system
c. Endotoxin in sympathetic system
d. Endotoxin in parasympathetic system
104. The first symptom of tetanus is
a. Lock jaw
b. Trismus
c. Anorexia
d. Dyspagia
105. Of which clostridia, the neurotoxin is most powerful?
a. Cl. tetani
b. Cl. welchii
c. Cl. botulism
d. Cl. septicum
106. Toxin produced by C. botulism is
a. Botulin
b. Tetanospasmin
c. Tetanolysin
d. Cholaragen
107. “Toxic shock syndrome” is caused by the toxin of
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus pyoge
c. Vibrio cholerae
d. Candida
108. Causative agent of syphilis
a. T. pallidum
b. T. pertenue
c. T. carateum
d. T. endemicum
109. Spirochaelis are sensitive to
a. Penicillin
b. Chloramphenicols
c. Erythromycin
d. Tetracyclins
110. Specific test for syphilis is
a. VDRL test
b. ELISA
c. FTA
d. None of these
111. VDRL test is a
a. Agglutination test
b. Slide flocculation test
c. Precipitation test
d. None of these
112. The following characters are true about Neisseria gonorrhoeae except
a. Gram-negative, aerobic bacteria
b. Non-motile diplococci
c. Oxidase positive organisms
d. Air borne infection
113. Gonorrhoea is
a. Air borne disease
b. Water borne disease
c. Sexually transmitted venereal disease
d. Both a and c
114. Bartholin cyst is caused by
a. Candida
b. Streptococcus
c. Staphylococcus
d. Gonococcus
115. Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes
a. Urethritis
b. Conjuctivitis
c. Arthritis
d. All of the above
116. Virulence in gonococcus is due to
a. Pili
b. Cell membrane
c. Its cellular location
d. Cyclic enzymes
117. Japanese encephalitis is caused by
a. Toga Viruses
b. Arbo Viruses
c. Para myxo Viruses
d. Ortho myxo Viruses
118. In India, Japanese b encephalitis was first isolated from the mosquitoes of the
a. Culex tritaeriorhynchus
b. Culex annulirostris
c. Culex vishnui
d. None of these
119. Dengue virus is transmitted from man to man by the
a. Sand fly
b. Ticks
c. Aedes aegypti
d. Culex
120. Yellow fever is caused by
a. Bunya virus
b. Calci virus
c. Arbo virus
d. None of these
a. Botulin
b. Tetanospasmin
c. Tetanolysin
d. Cholaragen
107. “Toxic shock syndrome” is caused by the toxin of
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus pyoge
c. Vibrio cholerae
d. Candida
108. Causative agent of syphilis
a. T. pallidum
b. T. pertenue
c. T. carateum
d. T. endemicum
109. Spirochaelis are sensitive to
a. Penicillin
b. Chloramphenicols
c. Erythromycin
d. Tetracyclins
110. Specific test for syphilis is
a. VDRL test
b. ELISA
c. FTA
d. None of these
111. VDRL test is a
a. Agglutination test
b. Slide flocculation test
c. Precipitation test
d. None of these
112. The following characters are true about Neisseria gonorrhoeae except
a. Gram-negative, aerobic bacteria
b. Non-motile diplococci
c. Oxidase positive organisms
d. Air borne infection
113. Gonorrhoea is
a. Air borne disease
b. Water borne disease
c. Sexually transmitted venereal disease
d. Both a and c
114. Bartholin cyst is caused by
a. Candida
b. Streptococcus
c. Staphylococcus
d. Gonococcus
115. Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes
a. Urethritis
b. Conjuctivitis
c. Arthritis
d. All of the above
116. Virulence in gonococcus is due to
a. Pili
b. Cell membrane
c. Its cellular location
d. Cyclic enzymes
117. Japanese encephalitis is caused by
a. Toga Viruses
b. Arbo Viruses
c. Para myxo Viruses
d. Ortho myxo Viruses
118. In India, Japanese b encephalitis was first isolated from the mosquitoes of the
a. Culex tritaeriorhynchus
b. Culex annulirostris
c. Culex vishnui
d. None of these
119. Dengue virus is transmitted from man to man by the
a. Sand fly
b. Ticks
c. Aedes aegypti
d. Culex
120. Yellow fever is caused by
a. Bunya virus
b. Calci virus
c. Arbo virus
d. None of these
121. Vector for leishmaniasis is
a. Tick
b. Mite
c. Sand fly
d. Tsetse fly
122. Splenomegaly is an important manifestation of
a. Kala-agar
b. Typhoid
c. Malaria
d. All of these
123. Which of the following is most severly affected in Kala-azar?
a. Liver
b. Spleen
c. Adrenal gland
d. Bone marrow
124. In India, malaria most often spreads by
a. Anophels cucifacies
b. Anopheles fluvatis
c. Anopheles stephensi
d. Anopheles minimus
125. Man is intermediate host for
a. Guinea Worm
b. Filaria
c. Malaria
d. Kala-azar
126. Which of the following preferably infects reticulocytes?
a. P. ovale
b. P.vivax
c. P.falciparum
d. P.malaria
127. In which type of material parasite in the exoerythrocytic stage absent?
a. P.ovale
b. P.vivax
c. P.falciparum
d. P. malariae
128. In falciparum malaria, all of the following stages are seen except
a. Ring stage
b. Schizont
c. Gametocyte
d. None of these
129. Sporozite vaccine in malaria has
a. Induces antibodies
b. Prevents only asexual forms with reproduction
c. No effects on clinical illness
d. None of the above
130. Growing trophozoites and schizonts are not seen in the peripheral blood in malaria due to
a. P. falciparum
b. P.vivax
c. P.ovale
d. P. malaria
131. Thin blood smear for malaria is used to identify
a. Plasmodium
b. Gametocytes
c. Type of parasite
d. Schizont
132. The radical teatment of malaria is to half
a. Gametocyte
b. Exo-erythrocytic phase
c. Erythrocytic phase
d. All of these
133. Symptoms of acute aflatoxicosis
a. Osteogenic sarcoma
b. Lymphatic leukemia
c. Malaise & Anorexia
d. Both a and b
134. Most important Penicillium toxins are
a. Citrinin
b. Patulin
c. Penicillic acid
d. All of the above
135. Penicillic acid is produced by
a. A. ochraceus
b. P. puberulum
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
a. Tick
b. Mite
c. Sand fly
d. Tsetse fly
122. Splenomegaly is an important manifestation of
a. Kala-agar
b. Typhoid
c. Malaria
d. All of these
123. Which of the following is most severly affected in Kala-azar?
a. Liver
b. Spleen
c. Adrenal gland
d. Bone marrow
124. In India, malaria most often spreads by
a. Anophels cucifacies
b. Anopheles fluvatis
c. Anopheles stephensi
d. Anopheles minimus
125. Man is intermediate host for
a. Guinea Worm
b. Filaria
c. Malaria
d. Kala-azar
126. Which of the following preferably infects reticulocytes?
a. P. ovale
b. P.vivax
c. P.falciparum
d. P.malaria
127. In which type of material parasite in the exoerythrocytic stage absent?
a. P.ovale
b. P.vivax
c. P.falciparum
d. P. malariae
128. In falciparum malaria, all of the following stages are seen except
a. Ring stage
b. Schizont
c. Gametocyte
d. None of these
129. Sporozite vaccine in malaria has
a. Induces antibodies
b. Prevents only asexual forms with reproduction
c. No effects on clinical illness
d. None of the above
130. Growing trophozoites and schizonts are not seen in the peripheral blood in malaria due to
a. P. falciparum
b. P.vivax
c. P.ovale
d. P. malaria
131. Thin blood smear for malaria is used to identify
a. Plasmodium
b. Gametocytes
c. Type of parasite
d. Schizont
132. The radical teatment of malaria is to half
a. Gametocyte
b. Exo-erythrocytic phase
c. Erythrocytic phase
d. All of these
133. Symptoms of acute aflatoxicosis
a. Osteogenic sarcoma
b. Lymphatic leukemia
c. Malaise & Anorexia
d. Both a and b
134. Most important Penicillium toxins are
a. Citrinin
b. Patulin
c. Penicillic acid
d. All of the above
135. Penicillic acid is produced by
a. A. ochraceus
b. P. puberulum
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
136. Fungi producting mycelium are called
a. Moulds
b. Filamentous fungi
c. Both a and b
d. Yeasts
137. Candidiasis is caused by
a. Candida albicans
b. Aspergillus spp.
c. E. floccosum
d. M. audouinii
138. Candida albicans is capable to form
a. Single cells
b. Pseudomonas
c. Multicellular forms
d. None of these
139. Aspergillus fumigatus can infect
a. A. niger
b. A. fumigatus
c. A. flavus
d. A. oryzae
140. A.fumigates can produce
a. Endotoxins
b. Exotoxins
c. Enterotoxins
d. None of these
141. The drug of choice for dermal, oral and vaginal candidiasis is
a. Griseofulvin
b. Amphotericin B
c. Gentian violet
d. Nystatin
142. The following Penicillium species are pathogenic except
a. P. commune
b. P. bicolor
c. P. glaucum
d. P.notatum
143. Tinea versicolor is caused by
a. Candida albicans
b. Malassezia furfur
c. Aspergillus niger
d. None of these
144. Causative agent of Tinea nigra
a. Malassezia furfur
b. Exophiala werenekii
c. Candida albicans
d. Aspergillus flavus
145. Causative agent of African histoplasmosis
a. Histoplasma capsulatum
b. Histoplasma duboissi
c. Aspergillus niger
d. Aspergillus flavus
146. Sun ray fungus is
a. Actinomyces irraeli
b. Chromoblastomycosis
c. Streptomyces griseus
d. Cryptococcosis
147. Which agent on addition to a colony inhibits its growth and on removal the colony regrows is?
a. Bacteriostatic
b. Bactericidal
c. Antibiotic
d. Antiseptic
148. Griseofluvin is obtained from
a. Penicillium notatum
b. Streptomyces griseus
c. Penicillium griseofluvin
d. None of these
149. ß-lactum ring is present in
a. Erythromycin
b. Penicillin
c. Tetracyclins
d. Chloramphenicol
150. All of the following drugs act on cell membrane, except
a. Novobiocin
b. Nystatin
c. Chloromycetin
d. Colicins
Go to next Page: a. Moulds
b. Filamentous fungi
c. Both a and b
d. Yeasts
137. Candidiasis is caused by
a. Candida albicans
b. Aspergillus spp.
c. E. floccosum
d. M. audouinii
138. Candida albicans is capable to form
a. Single cells
b. Pseudomonas
c. Multicellular forms
d. None of these
139. Aspergillus fumigatus can infect
a. A. niger
b. A. fumigatus
c. A. flavus
d. A. oryzae
140. A.fumigates can produce
a. Endotoxins
b. Exotoxins
c. Enterotoxins
d. None of these
141. The drug of choice for dermal, oral and vaginal candidiasis is
a. Griseofulvin
b. Amphotericin B
c. Gentian violet
d. Nystatin
142. The following Penicillium species are pathogenic except
a. P. commune
b. P. bicolor
c. P. glaucum
d. P.notatum
143. Tinea versicolor is caused by
a. Candida albicans
b. Malassezia furfur
c. Aspergillus niger
d. None of these
144. Causative agent of Tinea nigra
a. Malassezia furfur
b. Exophiala werenekii
c. Candida albicans
d. Aspergillus flavus
145. Causative agent of African histoplasmosis
a. Histoplasma capsulatum
b. Histoplasma duboissi
c. Aspergillus niger
d. Aspergillus flavus
146. Sun ray fungus is
a. Actinomyces irraeli
b. Chromoblastomycosis
c. Streptomyces griseus
d. Cryptococcosis
147. Which agent on addition to a colony inhibits its growth and on removal the colony regrows is?
a. Bacteriostatic
b. Bactericidal
c. Antibiotic
d. Antiseptic
148. Griseofluvin is obtained from
a. Penicillium notatum
b. Streptomyces griseus
c. Penicillium griseofluvin
d. None of these
149. ß-lactum ring is present in
a. Erythromycin
b. Penicillin
c. Tetracyclins
d. Chloramphenicol
150. All of the following drugs act on cell membrane, except
a. Novobiocin
b. Nystatin
c. Chloromycetin
d. Colicins
Medical Microbiology MCQ's for Staff Nurse and Medical Exam [Objective]
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September 24, 2016
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September 24, 2016
Rating: 5
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